RB Leipzig’s 22-year-old attacking midfielder Xavi Simons has strongly hinted at a summer departure, with a potential move to Chelsea FC gaining serious momentum. Following the confirmed exit of striker Benjamin Šeško to Newcastle United, the Bundesliga club appears set to lose another one of its brightest young stars.
Renowned football insider Fabrizio Romano reported on X (formerly Twitter), “Xavi Simons did not train with the RB Leipzig group on Friday… and he’s not expected to be part of the squad today. His decision is clearly oriented towards a move to Chelsea, after deleting Leipzig from his Instagram bio. Negotiations are at advanced stages between Chelsea and Leipzig.”
The Dutch international has had an impressive spell in Leipzig, scoring 21 goals in 76 appearances and playing a pivotal role in their 2023/24 German Super Cup triumph. Before his stint in Germany, Simons enjoyed a breakout season at PSV Eindhoven in 2022/23, where he netted 22 goals in 48 matches and won both the KNVB Cup and the Johan Cruyff Shield (Dutch Super Cup).
Simons’ rise to prominence began at Paris Saint-Germain, where he won the Coupe de France and French Super Cup in 2020/21, followed by a Ligue 1 title in 2021/22. On the international stage, he has already made a significant impact for the Netherlands, scoring 5 goals in 12 appearances.
Both Chelsea and Simons are reportedly keen to finalize the deal, with the South London club eager to secure his services ahead of the Premier League 2025/26 season. The potential signing would add much-needed creativity and flair to Chelsea’s attacking midfield, reinforcing the Blues’ ambition to re-establish themselves among England’s elite.
With the transfer window heating up, all eyes are now on Stamford Bridge as the club inches closer to signing one of Europe’s most promising young talents.